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Old 04-06-2012, 05:09 AM  
MaDalton
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Quote:
Originally Posted by u-Bob View Post
So it all boils down to this simple question: Are you allowed to commit acts of injustice when your intentions are good?

Are you allowed to steal from the rich to give to the poor?

Are you allowed to steal from a family that has 2 cars in order to give to a family with no car?

Are you allowed to force someone to donate to charity?

Are you allowed to steal from a hungry healthy individual in order to give to a hungry sick individual?
...

You know what the road to hell is paved with? good intentions. The most heinous acts, the worst crimes in human history were committed by people who thought they were doing the right thing. it's a slippery slope. As Bastiat pointed out in "The Law", once you think it's ok to violate people's property rights when your intentions are benevolent, it becomes simply a matter of coming up with a good excuse and you can do whatever you want.
listen... i am sometimes sad that i dont have the time and energy to read all these clever books anymore and my times at the university studying business management and economics are long gone (11 years now). And i forgot a lot.

but what i clearly remember from economics is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merit_good

i completely agree with that concept.


other than that i simply dont agree with what you wrote above because i dont see it happening. would you please provide me an example where someone had to donate his second car to someone else?
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