Quote:
Originally Posted by Rochard
I do agree. You are what you are.
If your gay, your gay; There's no getting around it. I have lots of gay friends and they all seem okay with this - They tell everyone they are gay, they tell everyone they are in a gay relationship, and they are hoping to have a gay marriage. Why would they be offended by being called gay?
I think that calling someone gay and thinking it's a derogatory term is "so twenty years ago".
I'll go a step further too. I'm Polish. But you can call me a fucking Polak all damn day long.
If you don't have a sense of fucking humor, what's the point of being alive?
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Yeah, BUT.. in this case the man is not gay, and it was used against him by someone hoping it would ruin his relationship with his girlfriend, which it ultimately did according to him. So while I agree that if you're gay, you shouldnt feel slandered if someone says "He's gay!", when you are not gay and someone is not using the term to call you "evil" but rather to say you are homosexual, how is it not slanderous? It's literally a false statement meant to damage the mans heterosexual relationship.. As I posted before, it's a STRANGE case for the court to make a precedent setting judgement! The logic used in the article was that the term "gay" equates to "evil" as if he was just being called an evil prick. While I agree that it's twenty years ago for people to be offended in THAT way.. that's not even what was alleged in the case.
ie: if "gay" is used like "Haha you're a stupid gay moron dumbass!" then I agree it's just silly.
but if "gay" is used like "You have sex with men and you're married! She should leave you because you're gay!" then I call it malicious slander. (unless it's true!)