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Old 09-19-2014, 01:41 AM  
editeur
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So, when a country invades another country, brings its citizens in to the acquired lands, installs slavery when natives should work for invaders for peanuts (so the invaders won't lie when they say they "have not collected a red cent in state handouts, have paid taxes, bought a house and contributed to the country they live in") - is it fair that the invaders have the same rights in voting if the country they've been exploiting should be free or not? Is it really fair?

Well, probably it's fair, as independence is taken by blood and war, not by polls.
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